1. Earth Systems and Resources #1-13 (23%)
#1 Approximately how old is the Earth?
Correct: D. 4,500,000,000 years
Reasoning: The age of the Earth is aprox. 4.54 billion years. This is based on evidence from radiometric age dating of meteorite material and is consistent with the ages of the oldest-know terrestrial and lunar samples.
My Answer: I chose E. 45,000,000,000 years because I got confused/forgot what you taught in class about what billion is to a million.
#2 An earthquake of Richter magnitude 2 releases ____ times less energy than an earthquake of Richter magnitude 4?
Correct: D) 100
Reasoning: The Richter scale is logarithmic, meaning that whole-number jumps indicate a tenfold increase ( or decrease) in wave amplitude; i.e., the wave amplitude in a level 2 earthquake is 100 times less than in a level 4 earthquake. However, the amount of energy released increases (or decreases) 31.7 times between whole number Richter values.
My Answer: I chose C. two because I didn't know what to choose and I thought it was a good guess.
#3 The interface where tectonic plates slide or grind past each other in a horizontal direction is known as
Correct: A. transform plate boundary
Reasoning: Transform plate boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are found in the ocean basin and are locations of recurring earthquake activity and faulting.
My Answer: I chose C. divergent plate boundaries because I forgot what the teacher said when he explained the types of plate boundaries. Also because since the were coming from different directions I assumed it was divergent.
#5 Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II. CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H2O
Correct: II, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: Nitrogen (N2) is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon (Ar), have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
My Answer: I chose A. II and III because I thought the rest were not considered green house gasses but apparently I don't know my green house gasses.
#7 Which of the following events about El Nino are TRUE?
Correct: C. I and II
Reasoning: El Nino episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Nino years) limits the amount of the nutrients brought to shallower depths by the upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
My Answer: I chose E. I, III, and IV because I didnt know what to choose and I don't know anything about El Nino except that when it comes, it rains a lot.
#8 Water in areas of upwelling is generally
Correct: D. cold and high in nutrients
Reasoning: Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient depleted surface water. The increased availability in the upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient enriched waters and global fishery yields
My Answers: I chose B. warm and high in nutrition because I thought since it's upwelling it would be warm but upwellings replace the warm water with cold water.
#9 Which of the following choices lists the amount of freshwater available on Earth in the correct descending order?
Correct: C. Glaciers and ice caps > groundwater > lakes > soil moisture > atmospheric moisture > rivers and streams
My Answer: I chose B. Glaciers and ice caps> atmospheric moisture> groundwater> rivers and streams> soil moisture > lakes because I thought it was in that order but I now understand why it is C.
#10 Freshwater used in developing countries is primarily used for
Correct: A. agriculture
Reason: Agriculture accounts to 70% of the world's freshwater usage. Agricultural water use is heavy in the developing world with some countries in Asia, Africa, and South America using more than 79% of their total freshwater supply for agricultural purposes. In fact, 85-90% of all the freshwater that is used in Africa and Asia are for agriculture.
My Answer: I chose E. all of the above because I thought agriculture, industrial, drinking, and domestic needs were used equally.
#11 Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about ____ rate or worldwide population growth
Correct: C. Twice the
Reason:Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
My Answer: I chose D. four times the because I thought humans are using more than twice the rate,but not 8 times the rate.
#12 Which soil layer consists of clay, iron oxides, and other components that came fro the zone of leaching?
Correct: B. B
Reason: The B horizon is commonly referred to as "subsoil" and consists of mineral layers that may contain concentrations of clay or minerals such as iron or aluminum oxides or organic material that got there by leaching. Accordingly, this layer is also known as the zone accumulation.
My Answer: I chose E. because since it was in between E and A I thought that was the zone of leaching, but I didn't even know what leaching was.
2. The Living World #14-27 (57%)
#17 Which of the following represents intraspecific interaction(s)
Correct: D. territoriality
Reason:Territoriality is behavior by a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions. Ecosystem Structure: Interactions Among Species
My Answer: I chose C. parasitism because I guessed and I don't know what intraspecific interactions are.
#20 In the food web above, which of the following statements would be TRUE for the owl?
I. The owl is an omnivore
II. The owl is a primary consumer
III. The owl is a secondary consumer
IV. The owl is a tertiary consumer
V. The owl is a primary producer
Correct: C) III and IV only
Reason:Plants are known as producers. Primary consumers eat plants. Secondary consumers eat primary consumers. Tertiary consumers eat secondary consumers. Two possible examples are provided below. Energy Flow: Food Webs
-Secondary Consumer: plant (producer) > rabbit (primary consumer) > owl (secondary consumer)
-Tertiary Consumer: plant (producer) > grasshopper (primary consumer) > songbird (secondary consumer) > owl (tertiary consumer)
My Answer: I chose D. I, IV, and V because I thought the owl is a primary producer. I do not know what a primary producer is.
#23 In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen below standards required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed area was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil adsorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investment in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost of constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
The Catskill Watershed provides _______ to New York City.
Correct: E. ecosystem services
Reason: Humankind benefits from a multitude of resources and processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystems services and include products like clean drinking water and processes such as decomposition of wastes.
My Answer: I chose A. natural resource services because water is a natural resource so i assumed it would be that service.
#25 Which of the following would be subject to primary succession?
Correct: A. rock exposed by a retreating glacier
Reason: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a previously uninhabited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Natural Ecosystem Change: Ecological Succession
My Answer: I chose E. a forest that has been burned because I thought a forest that has been burned lacked soil since everything is burnt.
#26 Which of the following would be TRUE regarding succession?
I. Growth of lichen on rocks after a fire destroyed a forest is an example of primary succession
II. Growth of grasses on a newly formed sand dune is an example of secondary succession
III. Growth of algae on cooled lava rock is an example of secondary succession
IV. K-selected organisms are typical of primary succession
V. r-selected organisms are typical of secondary succession
Correct: E. none are true
Reason: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a perviously uninhibited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Secondary succession is a process started by an event (e.g. forest fire, harvesting, hurricane) that reduces an already established ecosystem (e.g. a forest or a wheat field) to a smaller population of species, and as such, secondary succession occurs on pre-existing soil whereas primary succession usually occurs in a place lacking soil. Secondary succession is usually faster than primary succession as soil is already present, so there is no need for pioneer species and seeds, roots and underground vegetative organs of plants may still survive in the soil, in unstable or unpredictable environments, r-selection predominates as the ability to reproduce quickly is crucial. There is little advantage in adaptations that permit successful competition with other organisms because the environment is likely to change again. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of r-selection include: high fecundity (ability to produce many offspring), small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time, and the ability to disperse offspring widely. Examples include bacteria and diatoms, insects, and weeds. In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources is crucial. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-selection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, humans, and whales.
My Answer: I chose B. I and III even though I didn't know what succession is. I just remembered we were talking about lichen and algae so I assumed that was the answer.
#27 The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle is
Correct: D. nitrite
Reason: The conversion of ammonium (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) is performed primarily by soil-living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium (NH4+) is performed by bacteria such as the Nitrosimonas species, which converts ammonia (NH3) to nitrites (NO2-). Other bacterial species, such as Nitrobacter, are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites (NO2-) into nitrates (NO3-). It is important for the nitrates to be converted to nitrates because accumulated nitrites are toxic to plant life.
My Answer: I chose A. nitrate because I nitrogen and nitrate are similar and I was unfamiliar with what nitrate is.
Correct: D. territoriality
Reason:Territoriality is behavior by a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions. Ecosystem Structure: Interactions Among Species
My Answer: I chose C. parasitism because I guessed and I don't know what intraspecific interactions are.
#20 In the food web above, which of the following statements would be TRUE for the owl?
I. The owl is an omnivore
II. The owl is a primary consumer
III. The owl is a secondary consumer
IV. The owl is a tertiary consumer
V. The owl is a primary producer
Correct: C) III and IV only
Reason:Plants are known as producers. Primary consumers eat plants. Secondary consumers eat primary consumers. Tertiary consumers eat secondary consumers. Two possible examples are provided below. Energy Flow: Food Webs
-Secondary Consumer: plant (producer) > rabbit (primary consumer) > owl (secondary consumer)
-Tertiary Consumer: plant (producer) > grasshopper (primary consumer) > songbird (secondary consumer) > owl (tertiary consumer)
My Answer: I chose D. I, IV, and V because I thought the owl is a primary producer. I do not know what a primary producer is.
#23 In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen below standards required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed area was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil adsorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investment in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost of constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
The Catskill Watershed provides _______ to New York City.
Correct: E. ecosystem services
Reason: Humankind benefits from a multitude of resources and processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystems services and include products like clean drinking water and processes such as decomposition of wastes.
My Answer: I chose A. natural resource services because water is a natural resource so i assumed it would be that service.
#25 Which of the following would be subject to primary succession?
Correct: A. rock exposed by a retreating glacier
Reason: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a previously uninhabited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Natural Ecosystem Change: Ecological Succession
My Answer: I chose E. a forest that has been burned because I thought a forest that has been burned lacked soil since everything is burnt.
#26 Which of the following would be TRUE regarding succession?
I. Growth of lichen on rocks after a fire destroyed a forest is an example of primary succession
II. Growth of grasses on a newly formed sand dune is an example of secondary succession
III. Growth of algae on cooled lava rock is an example of secondary succession
IV. K-selected organisms are typical of primary succession
V. r-selected organisms are typical of secondary succession
Correct: E. none are true
Reason: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a perviously uninhibited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Secondary succession is a process started by an event (e.g. forest fire, harvesting, hurricane) that reduces an already established ecosystem (e.g. a forest or a wheat field) to a smaller population of species, and as such, secondary succession occurs on pre-existing soil whereas primary succession usually occurs in a place lacking soil. Secondary succession is usually faster than primary succession as soil is already present, so there is no need for pioneer species and seeds, roots and underground vegetative organs of plants may still survive in the soil, in unstable or unpredictable environments, r-selection predominates as the ability to reproduce quickly is crucial. There is little advantage in adaptations that permit successful competition with other organisms because the environment is likely to change again. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of r-selection include: high fecundity (ability to produce many offspring), small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time, and the ability to disperse offspring widely. Examples include bacteria and diatoms, insects, and weeds. In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources is crucial. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-selection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, humans, and whales.
My Answer: I chose B. I and III even though I didn't know what succession is. I just remembered we were talking about lichen and algae so I assumed that was the answer.
#27 The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle is
Correct: D. nitrite
Reason: The conversion of ammonium (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) is performed primarily by soil-living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium (NH4+) is performed by bacteria such as the Nitrosimonas species, which converts ammonia (NH3) to nitrites (NO2-). Other bacterial species, such as Nitrobacter, are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites (NO2-) into nitrates (NO3-). It is important for the nitrates to be converted to nitrates because accumulated nitrites are toxic to plant life.
My Answer: I chose A. nitrate because I nitrogen and nitrate are similar and I was unfamiliar with what nitrate is.
3. Population #28-39 (25%)
#28 . Which of the following are examples of density-independent factors that control population growth?
I. Droughts and floods
II. Fires
III. Use of pesticides
IV. Release of a pollutant
V. Overhunting and fishing
Correct: E. all choices are correct
Reason: A density-independent factor is one in which the effect of the factor on the size of the population is independent of and does NOT depend upon the original density or size of the population; e.g., a severe storm and flood coming through an area can just as easily wipe out a large population as a small one.
My Answer: I chose A. I because out of all of them I thought droughts and floods are the most influential in controlling population growth.
#29 The graph below is of a paramecium population growing in culture over a period of 30 hours. If food is a limiting factor for this population, then increasing the amount of food available in the water at the beginning of the experiment will...
Correct: C. have no effect on the population density between 0 and 15 hours
Reason: Having extra food in the water between 0 and 15 hours will generally not affect the population density during this time period. Assuming ideal conditions with more than enough food available during the time period, the paramecium are already reproducing at their maximum capacity. However, if there is extra food available at all times during the 30 hours of the experiment, then the time period of exponential growth is extended, increasing the population density until a point is reached that another limiting factor such as oxygen content in the water begins to affect the density of paramecium that can survive; at which point a new carrying capacity is established.
My Answer: I chose A. increase the population density between 0-15 hours because I thought increasing the amount of food in the beginning would increase the population
#30 Consider the following organisms
I. Elephant
II. Weeds
III. Mice
IV. Acorn Tree
V. Mosquitos
Which of the above would be considered K-strategists?
Correct: C. I and IV
Reason: In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates, as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources in crucial and populations of K-selected organisms typically are very constant and close to the maximum that the environment can bear (unlike r-selected populations, where population sizes can change much more rapidly). Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-slection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Examples of organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, and whales.
My Answer: I chose B. II, III, and V. I don't know what K strategists are so I guessed. I thought K strategists were small organisms.
#31 In wild populations, individuals most often show a ________ pattern of dispersion
Correct: A. clumped
Reason: In clumped distribution, the distance between neighboring individuals is minimized and is found in environments that are characterized by patchy resources. Clumped distribution is the most common type of dispersion found in nature because animals need certain resources to survive, ad when these resources become scarce during certain parts of the year, animals tend to "clump" together around these crucial resources. Individuals might be clustered together in an area due to social factors such as herds or family groups. Organisms that usually serve as prey form clumped distributions in areas where they can hide and detect predators easily. Other causes of clumped distributions are the inability of offspring to independently move from their habitat. Clumped distributions in species also acts as a mechanism against predation as well as an efficient mechanism to trap or corner prey
My Answer: I chose B. uniform because I thought wild populations were distributed regularly and fairly.
#32 Which of the choices above would be a characteristic survivorship curve for a songbird?
Correct: D. D
Reason: Choice D is known as a Type II survivorship curve and is typical of species in which a fairly constant mortality rate is experienced regardless of age. Type I survivorship curves (E) are characterized by high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life. Humans are only of the species that show this patterns of survivorship. In Type III (B), the greatest mortality is experienced early on in life with relatively low rates of death for those surviving this bottleneck. This type of curve is characteristic of species that produce a large number of offspring, e.g., frogs.
My Answer: I chose C. because the patter showed is curved from a low percentage of living organisms to a high percentage.
#34 A country with an annual population growth rate of 5% would double its population in approximately how many years?
Correct: C. 14 years
Reason: The Rule-of-70 provides a simple way to calculate the approximate number of years it takes for the level of a variable growing at a constant rate to double. This rule states that the approximate number of years n for a variable growing at the constant growth rate of R percent, to double is n=70/r=70/5=14. Human Population: Doubling Times
My Answer: I chose B. 7 years. I didn't know how to calculate so I just guessed.
#35 Which of the following choices correctly shows how birthrates and death rates compare between current population growth trends and trends that occurred during the First or Neolithic Agricultural Revolution that occurred approximately 10,000 years ago?
Correct: D.
First Agricultural Revolution Today
Birthrate: High Birthrate: Low
Death Rate: High Death Rate: Low
Reason: Prior to the First or Neolithic Agricultural Revolution, humans were hunters-gatherers. During the First Agricultural Revolution, humans began to domesticate animals and raise crops, which allowed a steady food supply. With a steady food supply, the population increased. However, without the current advancements in medical care, sanitation, food preservation, etc., both birth and death rates were high. Today's birth and death rates in many areas of the world are significantly lower than 10,000 years ago due to these advancements along with women joining the workforce, family planning, etc.
My Answer: I chose B because I thought the birthrate is high and the death rate is low in present time since a lot of people have kids and there is medicine to help us live longer.
#36 Which of the following statements would be TRUE?
I. A is experiencing rapid growth, B is experiencing slow growth, and C is experiencing a decline in growth
II. A is experiencing slow growth, B is experiencing rapid growth, and C is experiencing a decline is growth
III. A is experiencing a decline in growth, B is experiencing a rapid growth, and C is experiencing a slow growth
IV. A would be typical for Nigeria, B would be typical for Germany, and C would be typical for the United States
V. A would be typical for the United States, B would be typical for Nigeria, and C would be typical for Germany
Correct: A. I
Reason: Four general types of age-structure diagrams have been identified by the fertility and mortality rates of a country. 1) Stable pyramid- A population pyramid showing an unchanging pattern of fertility and mortality
2) Stationary pyramid- A population pyramid typical of countries with low fertility and low mortality, very similar to a constrictive pyramid
3) Expansive pyramid- A popuation pyramid showing a broad base, indicating a high proportion of children, a rapid rate of population growth, and a low proportion of older people. This type of pyramid indicates a population in which there is a high birthrate, a high death rate, and a short life expectancy. This is the typical pattern for less economically developed countries, due to little access to incentive to use birth control, negative environmental factors (for example, lack of clean water), and poor access to health care. This age structure diagram would be typical for a country such as Nigeria.
4) Constrictive pyramid- A population pyramid showing lower numbers or percentages of younger people, low birthrate, high numbers or percentages of older people due to longer life expectancies, and a low death rate. This pyramid is often a typical pattern for a very developed country, a high over-all education, an easy access to and incentive to use birth control, good health care, and few or no negative environmental factors. This age structure diagram would be typical for a country such as Germany and to a lesser extent the United States.
My Answer: I chose D. because I thought III and IV were correct statements about the A B and C diagrams
#39 Worldwide human population growth within the last 100 years is primarily due to
Correct: B. decrease in the death rate
Reason: The combination decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
My Answer: I chose A. increase in the birthrate because I thought about how people have babies because they don't use birth control, have good health, and few negative environmental factors.
I. Droughts and floods
II. Fires
III. Use of pesticides
IV. Release of a pollutant
V. Overhunting and fishing
Correct: E. all choices are correct
Reason: A density-independent factor is one in which the effect of the factor on the size of the population is independent of and does NOT depend upon the original density or size of the population; e.g., a severe storm and flood coming through an area can just as easily wipe out a large population as a small one.
My Answer: I chose A. I because out of all of them I thought droughts and floods are the most influential in controlling population growth.
#29 The graph below is of a paramecium population growing in culture over a period of 30 hours. If food is a limiting factor for this population, then increasing the amount of food available in the water at the beginning of the experiment will...
Correct: C. have no effect on the population density between 0 and 15 hours
Reason: Having extra food in the water between 0 and 15 hours will generally not affect the population density during this time period. Assuming ideal conditions with more than enough food available during the time period, the paramecium are already reproducing at their maximum capacity. However, if there is extra food available at all times during the 30 hours of the experiment, then the time period of exponential growth is extended, increasing the population density until a point is reached that another limiting factor such as oxygen content in the water begins to affect the density of paramecium that can survive; at which point a new carrying capacity is established.
My Answer: I chose A. increase the population density between 0-15 hours because I thought increasing the amount of food in the beginning would increase the population
#30 Consider the following organisms
I. Elephant
II. Weeds
III. Mice
IV. Acorn Tree
V. Mosquitos
Which of the above would be considered K-strategists?
Correct: C. I and IV
Reason: In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates, as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources in crucial and populations of K-selected organisms typically are very constant and close to the maximum that the environment can bear (unlike r-selected populations, where population sizes can change much more rapidly). Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-slection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Examples of organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, and whales.
My Answer: I chose B. II, III, and V. I don't know what K strategists are so I guessed. I thought K strategists were small organisms.
#31 In wild populations, individuals most often show a ________ pattern of dispersion
Correct: A. clumped
Reason: In clumped distribution, the distance between neighboring individuals is minimized and is found in environments that are characterized by patchy resources. Clumped distribution is the most common type of dispersion found in nature because animals need certain resources to survive, ad when these resources become scarce during certain parts of the year, animals tend to "clump" together around these crucial resources. Individuals might be clustered together in an area due to social factors such as herds or family groups. Organisms that usually serve as prey form clumped distributions in areas where they can hide and detect predators easily. Other causes of clumped distributions are the inability of offspring to independently move from their habitat. Clumped distributions in species also acts as a mechanism against predation as well as an efficient mechanism to trap or corner prey
My Answer: I chose B. uniform because I thought wild populations were distributed regularly and fairly.
#32 Which of the choices above would be a characteristic survivorship curve for a songbird?
Correct: D. D
Reason: Choice D is known as a Type II survivorship curve and is typical of species in which a fairly constant mortality rate is experienced regardless of age. Type I survivorship curves (E) are characterized by high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life. Humans are only of the species that show this patterns of survivorship. In Type III (B), the greatest mortality is experienced early on in life with relatively low rates of death for those surviving this bottleneck. This type of curve is characteristic of species that produce a large number of offspring, e.g., frogs.
My Answer: I chose C. because the patter showed is curved from a low percentage of living organisms to a high percentage.
#34 A country with an annual population growth rate of 5% would double its population in approximately how many years?
Correct: C. 14 years
Reason: The Rule-of-70 provides a simple way to calculate the approximate number of years it takes for the level of a variable growing at a constant rate to double. This rule states that the approximate number of years n for a variable growing at the constant growth rate of R percent, to double is n=70/r=70/5=14. Human Population: Doubling Times
My Answer: I chose B. 7 years. I didn't know how to calculate so I just guessed.
#35 Which of the following choices correctly shows how birthrates and death rates compare between current population growth trends and trends that occurred during the First or Neolithic Agricultural Revolution that occurred approximately 10,000 years ago?
Correct: D.
First Agricultural Revolution Today
Birthrate: High Birthrate: Low
Death Rate: High Death Rate: Low
Reason: Prior to the First or Neolithic Agricultural Revolution, humans were hunters-gatherers. During the First Agricultural Revolution, humans began to domesticate animals and raise crops, which allowed a steady food supply. With a steady food supply, the population increased. However, without the current advancements in medical care, sanitation, food preservation, etc., both birth and death rates were high. Today's birth and death rates in many areas of the world are significantly lower than 10,000 years ago due to these advancements along with women joining the workforce, family planning, etc.
My Answer: I chose B because I thought the birthrate is high and the death rate is low in present time since a lot of people have kids and there is medicine to help us live longer.
#36 Which of the following statements would be TRUE?
I. A is experiencing rapid growth, B is experiencing slow growth, and C is experiencing a decline in growth
II. A is experiencing slow growth, B is experiencing rapid growth, and C is experiencing a decline is growth
III. A is experiencing a decline in growth, B is experiencing a rapid growth, and C is experiencing a slow growth
IV. A would be typical for Nigeria, B would be typical for Germany, and C would be typical for the United States
V. A would be typical for the United States, B would be typical for Nigeria, and C would be typical for Germany
Correct: A. I
Reason: Four general types of age-structure diagrams have been identified by the fertility and mortality rates of a country. 1) Stable pyramid- A population pyramid showing an unchanging pattern of fertility and mortality
2) Stationary pyramid- A population pyramid typical of countries with low fertility and low mortality, very similar to a constrictive pyramid
3) Expansive pyramid- A popuation pyramid showing a broad base, indicating a high proportion of children, a rapid rate of population growth, and a low proportion of older people. This type of pyramid indicates a population in which there is a high birthrate, a high death rate, and a short life expectancy. This is the typical pattern for less economically developed countries, due to little access to incentive to use birth control, negative environmental factors (for example, lack of clean water), and poor access to health care. This age structure diagram would be typical for a country such as Nigeria.
4) Constrictive pyramid- A population pyramid showing lower numbers or percentages of younger people, low birthrate, high numbers or percentages of older people due to longer life expectancies, and a low death rate. This pyramid is often a typical pattern for a very developed country, a high over-all education, an easy access to and incentive to use birth control, good health care, and few or no negative environmental factors. This age structure diagram would be typical for a country such as Germany and to a lesser extent the United States.
My Answer: I chose D. because I thought III and IV were correct statements about the A B and C diagrams
#39 Worldwide human population growth within the last 100 years is primarily due to
Correct: B. decrease in the death rate
Reason: The combination decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
My Answer: I chose A. increase in the birthrate because I thought about how people have babies because they don't use birth control, have good health, and few negative environmental factors.
4. Land and Water Use #40-52 (30%)
#40 Which of the following was NOT a major component of the First Green Revolution?
Correct: : A. Genetic engineering of food crops
Reason: Genetically modified crops are crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting. The majority of processed foods in the United States contain food products that have been genetically modified. The DNA of the organism is spliced and swapped out for "better" genes, which are theoretically designed to create stronger, more resistant, and more productive plants. Agriculture: Feeding a Growing Population: Green Revolution
My Answer: I chose B. widespread use of synthetic nitrogen-based fertilizer because I thought it wasnt a major component compared to the other answer choices.
#41 Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
Correct: C. Organophosphates
Reason: Organophosphates are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today (approximately 40% of the world market) and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment. Most organophosphate pesticides are insecticides, although there are also a number of related herbicide and fungicide compounds. In developing countries, organophosphates are widely used because they are less expensive than the newer pesticide alternatives. Their use is banned or restricted in 23 countries, their import is illegal in a total of 50 countries, and they were banned in the United States in 2000 and have not been used since 2003.
My Answer: I chose E. organochlorines. I honestly just guessed. I thought I would be lucky to get the answer right instead of leaving it blank.
#42 Which of the following is NOT a principle of integrated pest management (IPM)?
Correct: D. Using broad, non-specific insecticides to reduce or eliminate all pest populations before they have a chance to get out of control
Reason: In addition to (A), (B), (C), and (E), IPM also includes (1) biological controls, which promote beneficial insects that eat target pests and (2) responsible pesticide use, which is generally only used as required and often only at specific times in a pest's life cycle. Many of the newer pesticide groups are derived from plants or naturally occurring substances (e.g., nicotine, pyrethrum, and insect juvenile hormone analogues)
My Answer: I chose B. selecting crop varieties best for local growing conditions. I do not know what IPM is I just guessed.
#43 The type of timber-harvesting method shown below is known as
Correct Answer: E. Shelterwood cutting
Reasoning: In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 year. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because of a "shelter" is left to protect them.
My Answer: I chose B group selection because I thought it was only cutting down trees in a certain area of a group of trees.
#44 Which of the choices below are effective method(s) of remediating the effects of desertification?
Correct Answer: E. I, II, III, IV
Reasoning: Market gardening is growing of vegetables and flowers on suburban land of high value for the supply of nearby cities. Heavy fertilizing, regular watering, and the planting of successive cops are employed to obtain continuous returns from the acreage
My Answer: I chose A. I and II because I thought reforestation and fixating the soil through the use of shelter.. are the most effective methods of remediating deforestation.
#46 During which U.S. presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
Correct Answer: D. Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961)
Reasoning: In 1919 when Dwight Eisenhower was a young officer in the U.S. Army, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C. to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during WWII, he had first-hand knowledge of the German autobahn. The Federal-Aid Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph (80-113 km per hour). Today the network stretches 47,000 miles (75,000 km).
My Answer: I chose C. Harry Truman. I really just guessed but now I understand why it was during Eisenhower's presidency.
#47 Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on earth to the largest?
Correct Answer: D. forests< agricultural< cities
Reasoning: Cities occupy approximately 5% of the earths land surface; forests occupy approximately one-third of the earth's surface; and land used for agricultural purposes occupies approximately half of all the earth's land surface.
My Answer: I chose B. forests<cities<agricultural because I thought agricultural was more large than cities.
#49 Rainwater runoff from the US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a steam channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
Correct Answer: C. mitigation
Reasoning: Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with the action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources. The example is not preservation as nothing was preserved. Environmental remediation deals with the removal of pollution or contaminants from environmental media such as soil, groundwater, sediment, or surface water. Restoration involved bringing back to a former or original state
My Answer: I chose E. all of the above because I thought all of the choices were reasonable answers and I really didn't know the differences.
#51 The type of fishing illustrated below is
Correct Answer: E. purse seining
Reason:Purse seining establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed- like a drawstring purse- to herd fish into the center. This method is used to catch schooling fish, such as sardines, or species that gather to spawn, such as squid.
My Answer: I chose B. long lining because they were using a very long net so I assumed the name matched with it's description.
5. Energy/Resources and Consumption #53-67 (13%)
#53 A store uses one-hundred 200-watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. How many kilowatt-hours of electrical energy are used in one year if the store is open 50 weeks per year, 6 days per week?
Correct Answer: B. 60,000
Reasoning:
100 lightbulbs 200 watts 10 hours 6 days 50 weeks 1 kilowatt
--------------- x ----------- x ---------- x -------- x ----------- x ----------- =
1 1 lightbulb 1 day 1 week 1 year 1,000 watts
60,000 kilowatt - hours
My Answer: I chose D. 30,000,000. To be honest, I did not know how to do the math but looking at the reasoning fixed that problem.
#54 The gas mileage of one model of the 2003 Hummer 2 was determined to be 8 miles per gallon. The 2012 Mitsubishi i-MiEV is an all-electric vehicle and when using a conversion factor to convert the fuel economy into miles per gallon of gasoline equivalent (MPGe), it is rated at 112 miles per gallon of gasoliine. How much more efficient in fuel consumption is the all electric vehicle over the Hummer 2?
Correct Answer: E. 1300%
Reasoning: The perfect change is calculated as %=Vf-Vi/Vi x 100% where Vf is the final value and Vi is the initial value. Therefore, %=112-8/8 x 100%= 1300%.
My Answer: I chose D.140%. Again, I guessed and did not know the formula for answering the problem.
#55 In an internal combustion automobile engine, only about 20% of the high-quality chemical energy available in the gasoline is converted to mechanical energy used to propel the car; the remaining 80% is degraded to low-quality heat that is released into the environment. In addition, about 50% of the mechanical energy produced is also degrade to low-quality heat energy through friction, so that 90% of the energy in gasoline is wasted and not used to move the car. This best illustrates which principle below?
Correct Answer: B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
Reasoning: The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that energy varies in its quality or ability to do useful work. For useful work to occur, energy must move or flow from a level or high-quality (more concentrated) energy to a level of lower-quality (less concentrated) energy. The chemical potential energy concentrated in a tank of gasoline is an example of high-quality energy. Because the energy in gasoline is concentrated, it has the ability to perform useful work in moving or changing matter. In contrast, less concentrated heat energy at a low temperature has little remaining ability to perform useful work.
My Answer: I chose D. Enthalpy. I just guessed but, I found out enthalpy is defined as a thermodynamic state function, designated by the letter "H", that consists of the internal energy of the system (U) plus the product of pressure (p) and volume (V) of the system: Since U, p and V are all functions of the state of the thermodynamic system, enthalpy is a state function.
#57 In the United States, on average, ______ energy is used to heat homes than is used to cool them.
Correct Answer: E. 250% more
Reasoning: The amount of energy required for heating a home far outpaces that used to cool it. In fact, over the course of a year nearly one third of a typical utility bill in the United States goes to heating. For most of the United States, on average, the temperature difference in the winter is about twice that of the summer to maintain an indoor temperature of 75 degrees F (25 degrees C). For example, during the winter, if the temperature outside is 35 degrees F (2 degrees C), that represents a 40 degree F difference. However, if the outdoor temperature in summer reaches 95 degrees F (35 degrees C), that represents a 20 degree F difference in order to keep the indoor temperature at 75 degrees F (24 degrees C).
My Answer: I chose A. 25% less because I was only thinking about California weather and California blasts air conditioning.
#58 Which sector listed below currently uses the largest amount of energy in the world?
Correct Answer: B. Industrial (e.g., manufacturing plants)
Reasoning: The industrial sector uses more delivered energy than any other end-use sector, consuming about one-half of the world's total delivered energy. The industrial sector comprises a diverse set of industries, including manufacturing (e.g, food, paper, chemicals, refining, iron and steel, etc.) and non-manufacturing (e.g., agriculture, mining, construction, etc.). The mix and intensity of fuels consumed in the industrial sector vary across regions and countries, depending on the level and mix of economic activity and technological development.
My Answers: I chose A. commercial because there is tons of stores and restaurants around us.
#60 Which of the following has the largest potential negative environment impact on global warming?
Correct Answer: C. Natural gas
Reasoning: Natural gas (mostly methane) when burned produces 45% less carbon dioxide than coal and 30% less carbon dioxide than oil. However, methane is about 20 times more dangerous for greenhouse warming than carbon dioxide so incomplete combustion or any leakage of natural gas (from animals, pipelines, landfills, melting tundra, sea floor hydrates, etc.) contributes strongly to greenhouse emissions and global warming.
My Answer: I chose A. coal because I learned that using coal was really bad.
#61 Which country listed below obtains the greatest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power?
Correct Answer: E. France
Reasoning: Nuclear power provides about 80% of the electricity produced in France compared to 20% for the United States, and France's electricity price is among the lowest in Europe.
My Answer: I chose D. Japan only because I hear about the nuclear power plant incident.
#62 What is the name and function of the labeled part "5"?
Correct Answer: E. cooling tower- cools or recycles water and releases unwanted heat to the environment
Reasoning: For every three units of energy produced by the reactor core of a U.S. nuclear a power plant, two units are discharged to the environment as waste heat. Nuclear plants are often built on the shores of lakes, rivers, and oceans because these bodies provide the large amounts of cooling water needed to handle the waste heat discharge that ultimately results in thermal pollution.
My Answer: I chose D. moderator. When we took a test on this I didn't know the parts and I never looked it up so I guessed.
#63 Which of the following methods of producing electricity is the MOST efficient?
Correct Answer: E. Hydroelectric Power Plants
Reasoning: Much of the energy content of the available energy sources is wasted by inefficiencies due to the energy conversion and distribution processes. A typical example is domestic electric lighting. Less than 1% of the energy consumed to provide the electricity is ultimately converted into light energy. The other 99% is wasted in the supply chain. Using a conventional fossil fueled generating plant, losses accumulate as follows:
-10% of the energy content of the fuel is lost in combustion and only 90% of the calorific content is transferred to the steam
the steam turbine efficiency in converting the energy the energy in converting the energy content of the steam into mechanical energy is limited to about 40%
-Transmission of the electrical energy over the distribution grid between the power station and the consumer results in a distribution loss of 10% mainly due to the resistance of the electrical cables.
-Further energy is lost due to the energy conversion efficiency of the end user's appliance. Incandescent lighting is particularly inefficient, converting only 2% of the electrical energy into light.
My Answer: I chose D. wind power because I thought there is an abundant amount of wind and there is a lot of windmills producing energy.
#64 Which of the following is the LEAST likely environmental consequence of building hydroelectric dams?
Correct Answer: C. Dams increase silting downstream
Reasoning: Dams built across rivers slow down the river's flow and cause sediments in the water to deposit to the bottom of the reservoir behind the dam. As the sediments accu- mulate in the reservoir, the dam gradually loses its ability to store water. The rate of reservoir sedimentation depends mainly on the size of a reservoir relative to the amount of sediment flowing into it: a small reservoir on an extremely muddy river will rapidly lose capacity whereas a large reservoir on a very clear river may take some time to lose an appreciable amount of storage. Large reservoirs in the United States lose storage capacity at an average rate of around 0.2% per year while most major reservoirs in China lose capacity at an annual rate over 2%.
My Answer: I chose E. Dams decrease the flow of water downstream because I thought Dams are supposed to keep water in and make power.
#65 Which government agency administers and regulates CAFE standards?
Correct Answer: B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
Reasoning: First enacted by Congress in 1975, the purpose of CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Economy) is to reduce energy consumption by increasing the fuel economy of cars and light trucks. The NHTSA administers the CAFE program and sets fuel economy standards for cars and light trucks sold in the United States, while the EPA provides the fuel economy data and calculates the average fuel economy for each manufacturer.
My Answer: I chose A. Environmental protection agency because I didn't know what CAFE was and I thought it would be regulated by EPA.
#66 A 42 watt CFL (compact fluorescent light) bulb produces 2,600 lumens of light lasts approximately 10,000 hours, and costs $13.00. A 150-watt incandescent light bulb produces the same amount of light, lasts only 1,000 hours, and costs $2.00. If electricity runs $0.10 per kWh, how much will the CFL save over the lifetime of the bulb compared to using the incandescent bulbs.
Correct Answer: E. $115.00
Reasoning: To begin with, you will need to buy 10 incandescent lightbulbs to last the same amount of time as the CFL: 10 x $2.00 = $20. By buying the CFL, you therefore save $20-$13 =$7.
The total cost of energy for the incandescent bulbs would be:
10 incan LB 150 watts 1 kilowatt 1,000 hours $0.10
------------- x ---------- x ----------- x ------------- x ------- = $150.00
1 1 incan LB 1,000 watts 1 1 kWh
The total cost of energy for the single CFL bulb would be:
10 CFL bulbs 42 watts 1 kilowatt 10,000 hours $0.10
-------------- x ---------- x ------------ x ------------- x ------- = $42.00
1 1 CFL bulb 1,000 watts 1 1 kWh
Therefore, you save $150.00 - $42.00 = $108.00 in energy for a total savings of $108.00 in energy + $7.00 saving in cost of bulb = $115.00
My Answer: I chose C. 42.00. I guess I didn't finish my calculations.
#67 Which of the following renewable energy sources listed below is used the LEAST in the United States
Correct Answer: A. Solar
Reason:
Correct: : A. Genetic engineering of food crops
Reason: Genetically modified crops are crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting. The majority of processed foods in the United States contain food products that have been genetically modified. The DNA of the organism is spliced and swapped out for "better" genes, which are theoretically designed to create stronger, more resistant, and more productive plants. Agriculture: Feeding a Growing Population: Green Revolution
My Answer: I chose B. widespread use of synthetic nitrogen-based fertilizer because I thought it wasnt a major component compared to the other answer choices.
#41 Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
Correct: C. Organophosphates
Reason: Organophosphates are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today (approximately 40% of the world market) and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment. Most organophosphate pesticides are insecticides, although there are also a number of related herbicide and fungicide compounds. In developing countries, organophosphates are widely used because they are less expensive than the newer pesticide alternatives. Their use is banned or restricted in 23 countries, their import is illegal in a total of 50 countries, and they were banned in the United States in 2000 and have not been used since 2003.
My Answer: I chose E. organochlorines. I honestly just guessed. I thought I would be lucky to get the answer right instead of leaving it blank.
#42 Which of the following is NOT a principle of integrated pest management (IPM)?
Correct: D. Using broad, non-specific insecticides to reduce or eliminate all pest populations before they have a chance to get out of control
Reason: In addition to (A), (B), (C), and (E), IPM also includes (1) biological controls, which promote beneficial insects that eat target pests and (2) responsible pesticide use, which is generally only used as required and often only at specific times in a pest's life cycle. Many of the newer pesticide groups are derived from plants or naturally occurring substances (e.g., nicotine, pyrethrum, and insect juvenile hormone analogues)
My Answer: I chose B. selecting crop varieties best for local growing conditions. I do not know what IPM is I just guessed.
#43 The type of timber-harvesting method shown below is known as
Correct Answer: E. Shelterwood cutting
Reasoning: In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 year. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because of a "shelter" is left to protect them.
My Answer: I chose B group selection because I thought it was only cutting down trees in a certain area of a group of trees.
#44 Which of the choices below are effective method(s) of remediating the effects of desertification?
Correct Answer: E. I, II, III, IV
Reasoning: Market gardening is growing of vegetables and flowers on suburban land of high value for the supply of nearby cities. Heavy fertilizing, regular watering, and the planting of successive cops are employed to obtain continuous returns from the acreage
My Answer: I chose A. I and II because I thought reforestation and fixating the soil through the use of shelter.. are the most effective methods of remediating deforestation.
#46 During which U.S. presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
Correct Answer: D. Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961)
Reasoning: In 1919 when Dwight Eisenhower was a young officer in the U.S. Army, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C. to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during WWII, he had first-hand knowledge of the German autobahn. The Federal-Aid Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph (80-113 km per hour). Today the network stretches 47,000 miles (75,000 km).
My Answer: I chose C. Harry Truman. I really just guessed but now I understand why it was during Eisenhower's presidency.
#47 Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on earth to the largest?
Correct Answer: D. forests< agricultural< cities
Reasoning: Cities occupy approximately 5% of the earths land surface; forests occupy approximately one-third of the earth's surface; and land used for agricultural purposes occupies approximately half of all the earth's land surface.
My Answer: I chose B. forests<cities<agricultural because I thought agricultural was more large than cities.
#49 Rainwater runoff from the US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a steam channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
Correct Answer: C. mitigation
Reasoning: Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with the action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources. The example is not preservation as nothing was preserved. Environmental remediation deals with the removal of pollution or contaminants from environmental media such as soil, groundwater, sediment, or surface water. Restoration involved bringing back to a former or original state
My Answer: I chose E. all of the above because I thought all of the choices were reasonable answers and I really didn't know the differences.
#51 The type of fishing illustrated below is
Correct Answer: E. purse seining
Reason:Purse seining establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed- like a drawstring purse- to herd fish into the center. This method is used to catch schooling fish, such as sardines, or species that gather to spawn, such as squid.
My Answer: I chose B. long lining because they were using a very long net so I assumed the name matched with it's description.
5. Energy/Resources and Consumption #53-67 (13%)
#53 A store uses one-hundred 200-watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. How many kilowatt-hours of electrical energy are used in one year if the store is open 50 weeks per year, 6 days per week?
Correct Answer: B. 60,000
Reasoning:
100 lightbulbs 200 watts 10 hours 6 days 50 weeks 1 kilowatt
--------------- x ----------- x ---------- x -------- x ----------- x ----------- =
1 1 lightbulb 1 day 1 week 1 year 1,000 watts
60,000 kilowatt - hours
My Answer: I chose D. 30,000,000. To be honest, I did not know how to do the math but looking at the reasoning fixed that problem.
#54 The gas mileage of one model of the 2003 Hummer 2 was determined to be 8 miles per gallon. The 2012 Mitsubishi i-MiEV is an all-electric vehicle and when using a conversion factor to convert the fuel economy into miles per gallon of gasoline equivalent (MPGe), it is rated at 112 miles per gallon of gasoliine. How much more efficient in fuel consumption is the all electric vehicle over the Hummer 2?
Correct Answer: E. 1300%
Reasoning: The perfect change is calculated as %=Vf-Vi/Vi x 100% where Vf is the final value and Vi is the initial value. Therefore, %=112-8/8 x 100%= 1300%.
My Answer: I chose D.140%. Again, I guessed and did not know the formula for answering the problem.
#55 In an internal combustion automobile engine, only about 20% of the high-quality chemical energy available in the gasoline is converted to mechanical energy used to propel the car; the remaining 80% is degraded to low-quality heat that is released into the environment. In addition, about 50% of the mechanical energy produced is also degrade to low-quality heat energy through friction, so that 90% of the energy in gasoline is wasted and not used to move the car. This best illustrates which principle below?
Correct Answer: B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
Reasoning: The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that energy varies in its quality or ability to do useful work. For useful work to occur, energy must move or flow from a level or high-quality (more concentrated) energy to a level of lower-quality (less concentrated) energy. The chemical potential energy concentrated in a tank of gasoline is an example of high-quality energy. Because the energy in gasoline is concentrated, it has the ability to perform useful work in moving or changing matter. In contrast, less concentrated heat energy at a low temperature has little remaining ability to perform useful work.
My Answer: I chose D. Enthalpy. I just guessed but, I found out enthalpy is defined as a thermodynamic state function, designated by the letter "H", that consists of the internal energy of the system (U) plus the product of pressure (p) and volume (V) of the system: Since U, p and V are all functions of the state of the thermodynamic system, enthalpy is a state function.
#57 In the United States, on average, ______ energy is used to heat homes than is used to cool them.
Correct Answer: E. 250% more
Reasoning: The amount of energy required for heating a home far outpaces that used to cool it. In fact, over the course of a year nearly one third of a typical utility bill in the United States goes to heating. For most of the United States, on average, the temperature difference in the winter is about twice that of the summer to maintain an indoor temperature of 75 degrees F (25 degrees C). For example, during the winter, if the temperature outside is 35 degrees F (2 degrees C), that represents a 40 degree F difference. However, if the outdoor temperature in summer reaches 95 degrees F (35 degrees C), that represents a 20 degree F difference in order to keep the indoor temperature at 75 degrees F (24 degrees C).
My Answer: I chose A. 25% less because I was only thinking about California weather and California blasts air conditioning.
#58 Which sector listed below currently uses the largest amount of energy in the world?
Correct Answer: B. Industrial (e.g., manufacturing plants)
Reasoning: The industrial sector uses more delivered energy than any other end-use sector, consuming about one-half of the world's total delivered energy. The industrial sector comprises a diverse set of industries, including manufacturing (e.g, food, paper, chemicals, refining, iron and steel, etc.) and non-manufacturing (e.g., agriculture, mining, construction, etc.). The mix and intensity of fuels consumed in the industrial sector vary across regions and countries, depending on the level and mix of economic activity and technological development.
My Answers: I chose A. commercial because there is tons of stores and restaurants around us.
#60 Which of the following has the largest potential negative environment impact on global warming?
Correct Answer: C. Natural gas
Reasoning: Natural gas (mostly methane) when burned produces 45% less carbon dioxide than coal and 30% less carbon dioxide than oil. However, methane is about 20 times more dangerous for greenhouse warming than carbon dioxide so incomplete combustion or any leakage of natural gas (from animals, pipelines, landfills, melting tundra, sea floor hydrates, etc.) contributes strongly to greenhouse emissions and global warming.
My Answer: I chose A. coal because I learned that using coal was really bad.
#61 Which country listed below obtains the greatest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power?
Correct Answer: E. France
Reasoning: Nuclear power provides about 80% of the electricity produced in France compared to 20% for the United States, and France's electricity price is among the lowest in Europe.
My Answer: I chose D. Japan only because I hear about the nuclear power plant incident.
#62 What is the name and function of the labeled part "5"?
Correct Answer: E. cooling tower- cools or recycles water and releases unwanted heat to the environment
Reasoning: For every three units of energy produced by the reactor core of a U.S. nuclear a power plant, two units are discharged to the environment as waste heat. Nuclear plants are often built on the shores of lakes, rivers, and oceans because these bodies provide the large amounts of cooling water needed to handle the waste heat discharge that ultimately results in thermal pollution.
My Answer: I chose D. moderator. When we took a test on this I didn't know the parts and I never looked it up so I guessed.
#63 Which of the following methods of producing electricity is the MOST efficient?
Correct Answer: E. Hydroelectric Power Plants
Reasoning: Much of the energy content of the available energy sources is wasted by inefficiencies due to the energy conversion and distribution processes. A typical example is domestic electric lighting. Less than 1% of the energy consumed to provide the electricity is ultimately converted into light energy. The other 99% is wasted in the supply chain. Using a conventional fossil fueled generating plant, losses accumulate as follows:
-10% of the energy content of the fuel is lost in combustion and only 90% of the calorific content is transferred to the steam
the steam turbine efficiency in converting the energy the energy in converting the energy content of the steam into mechanical energy is limited to about 40%
-Transmission of the electrical energy over the distribution grid between the power station and the consumer results in a distribution loss of 10% mainly due to the resistance of the electrical cables.
-Further energy is lost due to the energy conversion efficiency of the end user's appliance. Incandescent lighting is particularly inefficient, converting only 2% of the electrical energy into light.
My Answer: I chose D. wind power because I thought there is an abundant amount of wind and there is a lot of windmills producing energy.
#64 Which of the following is the LEAST likely environmental consequence of building hydroelectric dams?
Correct Answer: C. Dams increase silting downstream
Reasoning: Dams built across rivers slow down the river's flow and cause sediments in the water to deposit to the bottom of the reservoir behind the dam. As the sediments accu- mulate in the reservoir, the dam gradually loses its ability to store water. The rate of reservoir sedimentation depends mainly on the size of a reservoir relative to the amount of sediment flowing into it: a small reservoir on an extremely muddy river will rapidly lose capacity whereas a large reservoir on a very clear river may take some time to lose an appreciable amount of storage. Large reservoirs in the United States lose storage capacity at an average rate of around 0.2% per year while most major reservoirs in China lose capacity at an annual rate over 2%.
My Answer: I chose E. Dams decrease the flow of water downstream because I thought Dams are supposed to keep water in and make power.
#65 Which government agency administers and regulates CAFE standards?
Correct Answer: B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
Reasoning: First enacted by Congress in 1975, the purpose of CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Economy) is to reduce energy consumption by increasing the fuel economy of cars and light trucks. The NHTSA administers the CAFE program and sets fuel economy standards for cars and light trucks sold in the United States, while the EPA provides the fuel economy data and calculates the average fuel economy for each manufacturer.
My Answer: I chose A. Environmental protection agency because I didn't know what CAFE was and I thought it would be regulated by EPA.
#66 A 42 watt CFL (compact fluorescent light) bulb produces 2,600 lumens of light lasts approximately 10,000 hours, and costs $13.00. A 150-watt incandescent light bulb produces the same amount of light, lasts only 1,000 hours, and costs $2.00. If electricity runs $0.10 per kWh, how much will the CFL save over the lifetime of the bulb compared to using the incandescent bulbs.
Correct Answer: E. $115.00
Reasoning: To begin with, you will need to buy 10 incandescent lightbulbs to last the same amount of time as the CFL: 10 x $2.00 = $20. By buying the CFL, you therefore save $20-$13 =$7.
The total cost of energy for the incandescent bulbs would be:
10 incan LB 150 watts 1 kilowatt 1,000 hours $0.10
------------- x ---------- x ----------- x ------------- x ------- = $150.00
1 1 incan LB 1,000 watts 1 1 kWh
The total cost of energy for the single CFL bulb would be:
10 CFL bulbs 42 watts 1 kilowatt 10,000 hours $0.10
-------------- x ---------- x ------------ x ------------- x ------- = $42.00
1 1 CFL bulb 1,000 watts 1 1 kWh
Therefore, you save $150.00 - $42.00 = $108.00 in energy for a total savings of $108.00 in energy + $7.00 saving in cost of bulb = $115.00
My Answer: I chose C. 42.00. I guess I didn't finish my calculations.
#67 Which of the following renewable energy sources listed below is used the LEAST in the United States
Correct Answer: A. Solar
Reason:
My Answer: I chose D. Hydroelectric because I thought all the other options were used more. (solar, biomass, wind, geothermal)
6. Pollution #68-91 (20%)
#68 Which of the following would be classified as a secondary air pollutant?
Correct Answer: B. Acid rain
Reasoning: Primary air pollutants are pollutants that are released directly into the lower atmosphere (troposphere) and are toxic. Secondary air pollutants are those pollutants that are formed by the combination or chemical reaction of primary pollutants in the atmosphere. Acid rain forms from the chemical reaction in the atmosphere. Acid rain is formed by the reaction of sulfur dioxide and water vapor. Another example of secondary air pollutant would be PANs ( peroxacyl nitrates) which are formed by the hydrocarbons, oxygen,and nitrogen dioxide.
My Answer: I chose C.carbon dioxide because I thought since it comes from cars, when we exhale, it would be secondary air pollutant.
#69 Which of the following would NOT be classified as a criteria pollutant?
Correct Answer: E. Carbon dioxide
Reasoning: Criteria pollutants that do the most harm to humans. In addition to those listed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and lead (Pb) are also included.
My Answer: I chose D. ozone because I thought the ozone layer is good for us.
#72 During the summer months, Los Angeles, California often experiences a temperature inversion. During this even
Correct Answer: B. Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
Reasoning: Temperature inversions usually occur in urban areas when air pollutants are trapped close to the ground and are not able to rise into the atmosphere. Under normal conditions, warmer air, which is less dense than cooler air, will rise into the cooler atmosphere above. However, during a temperature inversion, the air above a city is warm, which prevents the polluted warmer air from rising, causing smog levels to increase, which results in increased respiratory distress.
My Answer: I chose C. There is no colder air mass to provide a difference in temperature because I thought since it was summer there would be no cold air.
#73 Given the following pollutants
I. CFCs
II. VOCs
III. Radon
IV. PANs
V. Asbestos
Which are NOT naturally occurring indoor air pollutants?
Correct Answer: C) I, II, and IV
Reason: "Naturally occurring" means occurring in nature in a free state. Both the radon and asbestos are found in nature and are sometimes found in indoor air samples. If radioactive radon occurs in the bedrock near a building, it can seep into a basement or crawlspace and eventually result in lung cancer. Asbestos was often used as insulation material. When asbestos fibers are inhaled, they are trapped in the lung, which causes the lungs to produce acids. In time, this can lead to diseases such as asbestosis, lung cancer, or mesothelioma. Chlorofluorocarbons and peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs) are not naturally occurring in their free state and are generally not considered indoor air pollutants. VOCs (volatile organic compunds) such as formaldehyde, are indoor air pollutants and are commonly found in carpet, paneling, furniture, paint, plastics, cleaning fluids, etc., but unlike CFCs and PANs, they are not naturally occurring.
My Answer: I chose A. I and II even though I don't know what those pollutants were.
#74 Which of the following criteria were used for acceptable exposure to specific air pollutants as addressed in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards set forth by the Clean Air Act?
I. The amount of time exposed to the air pollutant
II. The concentration of the air pollutant
III. The toxicity of the air pollutant
IV. The LD50 of the air pollutant
V. The number of people that would be at risk if exposed to the air pollutant
Correct Answer: A. I and II
Reasoning: National Ambient Air quality Standards (NAAQS) are standards established by the EPA under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country, Primary standards are designed to protect human health, with an adequate margin of safety, including sensitive populations such as children, the elderly, and individuals suffering from respiratory diseases. Secondary standards are designed to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant.
My Answer: I chose B. II and III because I thought the concentration of the air pollutant and the toxicity of air pollutant were
#75 Which of the following statement(s) regarding noise pollution is/are TRUE?
I. Noise pollution is a significant occupational hazard and is regulated and enforced by the EPA.
II. Sound measured a 40 decibels is twice as loud as sound measured at 20 decibels
III. Noise pollutions is not a serious threat in the oceans as organisms that live in the water do not hear
IV. The Office of Noise Abatement and Control of the EPA is currently charged with regulating and overseeing noise abatement activities.
Correct Answer: E. III, IV, and V
Reasoning: Noise pollution in the workplace is regulated and enforced by OSHA a branch of the U.S Department of Labor. A difference of 20 decibels corresponds to an increase of 10 x 10 or 100 times in intensity, Reef fish, whales, dolphins, and other marine species rely on sounds to communicate. Under the Clear Air Act, the EPA established the Office of Noise Abatement and Control to carry out investigations and studies on noise and its effect on the public health and welfare. Through ONAC, the EPA coordinated all federal noise control activities, but in 1981 the administration concluded that noise issues were best handled at state and local level. As a result, ONAC was closed and primary responsibility of addressing noise issues were transferred to state and local governments. However, EPA retains authority to investigate and study noise and its effect, disseminate information to the public regarding noise pollution and its adverse health effects, respond to inquiries on matters related to noise, and evaluate the effectiveness of existing regulations for protecting the public health and welfare.
My Answer: I chose D because I thought that Noise pollutant was regulated and enforced by the EPA.
#76 Which of the following forms of water pollution affects the largest number of people worldwide?
Correct Answer: D. Waterborne pathogens and diseases
Reasoning: The World Health Organization has estimated that about 1 billion people globally lack basic access to drinking water resources, while about 2.5 billion people have inadequate sanitation facilities, which accounts for many water related acute and chronic diseases. Some 3.5 million people, many of them young children, die each year from water-borne diseases such as intestinal diarrhea, cholera, typhoid fever, and dysentery, caused by microbially-contaminated water supplies that are linked to deficient or non existent sanitation and sewage disposal facilities. Globally, water-borne diseases are the second leading cause of death in children below the age of five years, while childhood mortality rates from acture respiratory infections ranks first.
My Answer: I chose E because usually when factories are built, the water sources downstream are contaminated by the factories with the toxic materials.
#77 An APES class was doing a field study of effluent water entering a river through a large drainage pipe from a large building. Which of the following would be a logical conclusion based upon their observation?
Correct Answer: B. The students detected measurable amounts of coliform bacteria in the river near the drainage pipe and concluded that the building could be a meatpacking plant.
Reasoning: In choice A), hot water does not promote the growth of algae-phosphates and/or nitrates do. With an algal bloom being a mile away from the factory, it would be more likely that phosphates and/or nitrates were coming from another source. In choice C), finding high concentrations of metal ions upstream the drainage pipe would generally rule out of the factory. Furthermore, metal ions would generally not be a waste product from a fertilizer plant. In choice D), large numbers of larvae, also known as indicator species, probably insect indicate that the water this far from the factory may be very clean. amounts of wastes dumped into the water at the site of the drainage pipe would supply to vital nutrients bacteria that would thrive and use up large amounts of oxygen for their need (cultural eutrophication). Turbidity measures the amount of suspended material in the water and would probably not have much to do with the release of waste water from the production of pharmaceuticals. Water Pollution: Sources
My Answer: I chose A. because I thought warm water causes algae.
#78 Groundwater contamination is addressed in all of the following EXCEPT the
Correct Answer: A. Clean Water Act
Reasoning: The Clean Water Act, passed in 1972, was enacted to reduce point source and addressed contamination. The safe protecting surface water. It did not directly address groundwater the Drinking water Act, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and Superfund Act did address groundwater contamination. Water Pollution: Clean Water Act and Other Relevant Law
My Answer: I chose E. because I thought all of the above addressed groundwater.
#79 BOD indicates
Correct Answer: A. The level of pollution in a sample of water
Reasoning: Biochemical oxygen demand or BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to breakdown organic material present bin a given water sample at a certain temp. over specific time period. The term also refers to a chemical procedure for determining this amount.
My Answer: I chose D. the potential amount of oxygen that the water sample could contain given the pH, temperature, and volume of the sample because I thought that is what BOD indicates.
#80 At which point on the graph would you expect to find the highest concentration of anaerobic bacteria?
Correct Answer: B. B
Reasoning: Anaerobic decomposition is a biological process in which decomposition of organic matter occurs without oxygen. The area of the graph where oxygen in the water is lowest is the area where BOD is the highest. Two processes occur during anaerobic decomposition. First, facultative acid-forming bacteria use organic matter as a food source and produce volatile (organic acids, gases such as carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide, stable solids, and more facultative organisms. Second, anaerobic methane formers use the volatile acids as a food source and produce methane gas, stable solids, and more anaerobic methane formers.
My Answer: I chose A. A because I thought at zero there would be a high concentration og anaerobic bacteria.
#82 Most solids municipal wastes in the U.S. are disposed of by?
Correct Answer: D. Taking them to sanitary landfills.
Reasoning: Sanitary landfills are one of the most popular forms of watse disposal in the U.S., primarily because they are the least expensive way to dispose of waste. In a sanitary landfill, waste is spread in layers on a piece of property, usually on a marginal or submarginal land. The waste is spread into layers and then compacted tightly, greatly reducing the volume of the waste. It should not be located in areas with high groundwater tables.
My Answer: I chose A. taking the wastes far from land and dumping them into the sea because I thought thats what they do.
# 83 The "environmental friendly" methods of dealing with waste disposal are to reuse, reduce and recycle. Which of the following choices places these methods in order of increasing amounts of energy required for that particular process?
Correct Answer: E. Reduce <reuse < recycle.
Reasoning: Whenever possible, waste reduction is the least expensive option. If waste id produces, every effort should be made to reuse it if possible. Recycling is the third option in the waste management hierarchy. Although recycling does help to converse resources and reduce wastes, there are economic and environmental costs associated with waste collection and recycling.
My Answer: I chose C. recycle<reduce< reuse because in elementary I learned a song that had this order to teach us to recycle.
#84 A group of workers at a nuclear power plant received an acute exposure of radiation. This means
Correct Answer: B. the workers received a high dosage of radiation in a very short time period
Reasoning: An acute exposure refers to a single exposure to a harmful substance that results in severe biological harm or death.
My Answer: I chose C. the workers received a low dosage of radiation over a long period of time. I guessed.
#85 A laboratory was testing the effectiveness of a new insecticide. The laboratory determined that the LD50 dosage level for the rats was 150 milligrams per kilogram of body mass. Based on this information, which of the following statements would be most accurate?
Correct Answer: B. Fifty out of 100 rats receiving 150 milligrams of the new insecticide per kilogram of body mass would die.
Reasoning: The median lethal dose, LD50 of a toxin, radiation, or pathogen is the does required to kill half the members of a tested population after a specified test duration. LD50 figures are frequently used as a general indicator of a substance's acute toxicity.
My Answer: I chose E. because I didn't know what the answer was but now looking at the reasoning I understand.
#86 Which point represents the LD50?
Correct Answer: D. D
Reasoning: Follow the Y axis up to 50%, then move right until you reach the curve, then read straight down.
My Answer: I chose B. B because I thought the LD50 was horizontally
#87 Which point represents the threshold?
Correct Answer: C. C
Reasoning: The first point along the graph where a response above zero is reached is referred to as a threshold dose. For most drugs, the desired effects are found at doses slightly greater than the threshold dose. At higher doses, undesired side effects appear and grow stronger as the dose increases. The more potent a particular substance is, the steeper this curve will be.
My Answer: I chose D. D because I thought threshold is the point where it is about to increase.
#89 DDT, a synthetic agricultural pesticide, was very effective in reducing incidents of malaria but caused shell thinning in certain species of birds. particularly birds of prey such as the bald eagle,brown pelican, peregrine falcon,and osprey. Based only upon shell thinning, DDT would be classified as what type of hazardous waste?
Correct Answer: E. Endocrine disrupter
Reasoning:Endocrine disruptors are substances that interfere with the synthesis, secretion, transport, binding, action, or elimination of natural hormones in the body that are responsible for development, behavior, fertility, and maintenance of homeostasis. Studies have shown that endocrine disruptors can cause adverse biological effects in animals. and low-level exposures also cause similar effects in human beings. In the late 1950s. Rachel Carson, a marine biologist, turned her attention to conservation and the environmental problems caused by synthetic pesticides. Her book, Silent Spring (1962), brought environmental concerns to an unprecedented portion of the American public. Silent Spring. while met with fierce denial from chemical companies, spurred a reversal in national pesticide policy—leading to a_nationwide ban on DDT and other pesticides——and led to the creation of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). DDT has also been linked to avian beak deformities. Had the question included beak deformities, then DDT would also be acting as a mutagen (capable of mutating DNA) and/ or teratogen (a drug or other substance capable of interfering with the development of a fetus, causing birth defects).
My Answer: I chose D. mutagen because it was the only word that sounded familiar.
#91 Which of the following acts addresses and regulates the disposal of hazardous wastes?
Correct Answers: B. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
Reasoning: Congress enacted the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) in 1976 to address the increasing problems the nation faced from its growing volume of municipal and industrial waste. RCRA amended the Solid Waste Disposal Act of 1965. It set national goals for:
- Protecting human health and the natural environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal.
- Energy conservation and natural resources.
-Reducing the amount of waste generated through source reduction and recycling.
- Setting standards for the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes. Hazards to Human Health: Relevant Laws
My Answer: I chose E. pollution prevention act because I thought hazardous wastes are pollutants so I thought it was PPA.
Correct Answer: B. Acid rain
Reasoning: Primary air pollutants are pollutants that are released directly into the lower atmosphere (troposphere) and are toxic. Secondary air pollutants are those pollutants that are formed by the combination or chemical reaction of primary pollutants in the atmosphere. Acid rain forms from the chemical reaction in the atmosphere. Acid rain is formed by the reaction of sulfur dioxide and water vapor. Another example of secondary air pollutant would be PANs ( peroxacyl nitrates) which are formed by the hydrocarbons, oxygen,and nitrogen dioxide.
My Answer: I chose C.carbon dioxide because I thought since it comes from cars, when we exhale, it would be secondary air pollutant.
#69 Which of the following would NOT be classified as a criteria pollutant?
Correct Answer: E. Carbon dioxide
Reasoning: Criteria pollutants that do the most harm to humans. In addition to those listed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and lead (Pb) are also included.
My Answer: I chose D. ozone because I thought the ozone layer is good for us.
#72 During the summer months, Los Angeles, California often experiences a temperature inversion. During this even
Correct Answer: B. Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
Reasoning: Temperature inversions usually occur in urban areas when air pollutants are trapped close to the ground and are not able to rise into the atmosphere. Under normal conditions, warmer air, which is less dense than cooler air, will rise into the cooler atmosphere above. However, during a temperature inversion, the air above a city is warm, which prevents the polluted warmer air from rising, causing smog levels to increase, which results in increased respiratory distress.
My Answer: I chose C. There is no colder air mass to provide a difference in temperature because I thought since it was summer there would be no cold air.
#73 Given the following pollutants
I. CFCs
II. VOCs
III. Radon
IV. PANs
V. Asbestos
Which are NOT naturally occurring indoor air pollutants?
Correct Answer: C) I, II, and IV
Reason: "Naturally occurring" means occurring in nature in a free state. Both the radon and asbestos are found in nature and are sometimes found in indoor air samples. If radioactive radon occurs in the bedrock near a building, it can seep into a basement or crawlspace and eventually result in lung cancer. Asbestos was often used as insulation material. When asbestos fibers are inhaled, they are trapped in the lung, which causes the lungs to produce acids. In time, this can lead to diseases such as asbestosis, lung cancer, or mesothelioma. Chlorofluorocarbons and peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs) are not naturally occurring in their free state and are generally not considered indoor air pollutants. VOCs (volatile organic compunds) such as formaldehyde, are indoor air pollutants and are commonly found in carpet, paneling, furniture, paint, plastics, cleaning fluids, etc., but unlike CFCs and PANs, they are not naturally occurring.
My Answer: I chose A. I and II even though I don't know what those pollutants were.
#74 Which of the following criteria were used for acceptable exposure to specific air pollutants as addressed in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards set forth by the Clean Air Act?
I. The amount of time exposed to the air pollutant
II. The concentration of the air pollutant
III. The toxicity of the air pollutant
IV. The LD50 of the air pollutant
V. The number of people that would be at risk if exposed to the air pollutant
Correct Answer: A. I and II
Reasoning: National Ambient Air quality Standards (NAAQS) are standards established by the EPA under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country, Primary standards are designed to protect human health, with an adequate margin of safety, including sensitive populations such as children, the elderly, and individuals suffering from respiratory diseases. Secondary standards are designed to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant.
My Answer: I chose B. II and III because I thought the concentration of the air pollutant and the toxicity of air pollutant were
#75 Which of the following statement(s) regarding noise pollution is/are TRUE?
I. Noise pollution is a significant occupational hazard and is regulated and enforced by the EPA.
II. Sound measured a 40 decibels is twice as loud as sound measured at 20 decibels
III. Noise pollutions is not a serious threat in the oceans as organisms that live in the water do not hear
IV. The Office of Noise Abatement and Control of the EPA is currently charged with regulating and overseeing noise abatement activities.
Correct Answer: E. III, IV, and V
Reasoning: Noise pollution in the workplace is regulated and enforced by OSHA a branch of the U.S Department of Labor. A difference of 20 decibels corresponds to an increase of 10 x 10 or 100 times in intensity, Reef fish, whales, dolphins, and other marine species rely on sounds to communicate. Under the Clear Air Act, the EPA established the Office of Noise Abatement and Control to carry out investigations and studies on noise and its effect on the public health and welfare. Through ONAC, the EPA coordinated all federal noise control activities, but in 1981 the administration concluded that noise issues were best handled at state and local level. As a result, ONAC was closed and primary responsibility of addressing noise issues were transferred to state and local governments. However, EPA retains authority to investigate and study noise and its effect, disseminate information to the public regarding noise pollution and its adverse health effects, respond to inquiries on matters related to noise, and evaluate the effectiveness of existing regulations for protecting the public health and welfare.
My Answer: I chose D because I thought that Noise pollutant was regulated and enforced by the EPA.
#76 Which of the following forms of water pollution affects the largest number of people worldwide?
Correct Answer: D. Waterborne pathogens and diseases
Reasoning: The World Health Organization has estimated that about 1 billion people globally lack basic access to drinking water resources, while about 2.5 billion people have inadequate sanitation facilities, which accounts for many water related acute and chronic diseases. Some 3.5 million people, many of them young children, die each year from water-borne diseases such as intestinal diarrhea, cholera, typhoid fever, and dysentery, caused by microbially-contaminated water supplies that are linked to deficient or non existent sanitation and sewage disposal facilities. Globally, water-borne diseases are the second leading cause of death in children below the age of five years, while childhood mortality rates from acture respiratory infections ranks first.
My Answer: I chose E because usually when factories are built, the water sources downstream are contaminated by the factories with the toxic materials.
#77 An APES class was doing a field study of effluent water entering a river through a large drainage pipe from a large building. Which of the following would be a logical conclusion based upon their observation?
Correct Answer: B. The students detected measurable amounts of coliform bacteria in the river near the drainage pipe and concluded that the building could be a meatpacking plant.
Reasoning: In choice A), hot water does not promote the growth of algae-phosphates and/or nitrates do. With an algal bloom being a mile away from the factory, it would be more likely that phosphates and/or nitrates were coming from another source. In choice C), finding high concentrations of metal ions upstream the drainage pipe would generally rule out of the factory. Furthermore, metal ions would generally not be a waste product from a fertilizer plant. In choice D), large numbers of larvae, also known as indicator species, probably insect indicate that the water this far from the factory may be very clean. amounts of wastes dumped into the water at the site of the drainage pipe would supply to vital nutrients bacteria that would thrive and use up large amounts of oxygen for their need (cultural eutrophication). Turbidity measures the amount of suspended material in the water and would probably not have much to do with the release of waste water from the production of pharmaceuticals. Water Pollution: Sources
My Answer: I chose A. because I thought warm water causes algae.
#78 Groundwater contamination is addressed in all of the following EXCEPT the
Correct Answer: A. Clean Water Act
Reasoning: The Clean Water Act, passed in 1972, was enacted to reduce point source and addressed contamination. The safe protecting surface water. It did not directly address groundwater the Drinking water Act, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and Superfund Act did address groundwater contamination. Water Pollution: Clean Water Act and Other Relevant Law
My Answer: I chose E. because I thought all of the above addressed groundwater.
#79 BOD indicates
Correct Answer: A. The level of pollution in a sample of water
Reasoning: Biochemical oxygen demand or BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to breakdown organic material present bin a given water sample at a certain temp. over specific time period. The term also refers to a chemical procedure for determining this amount.
My Answer: I chose D. the potential amount of oxygen that the water sample could contain given the pH, temperature, and volume of the sample because I thought that is what BOD indicates.
#80 At which point on the graph would you expect to find the highest concentration of anaerobic bacteria?
Correct Answer: B. B
Reasoning: Anaerobic decomposition is a biological process in which decomposition of organic matter occurs without oxygen. The area of the graph where oxygen in the water is lowest is the area where BOD is the highest. Two processes occur during anaerobic decomposition. First, facultative acid-forming bacteria use organic matter as a food source and produce volatile (organic acids, gases such as carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide, stable solids, and more facultative organisms. Second, anaerobic methane formers use the volatile acids as a food source and produce methane gas, stable solids, and more anaerobic methane formers.
My Answer: I chose A. A because I thought at zero there would be a high concentration og anaerobic bacteria.
#82 Most solids municipal wastes in the U.S. are disposed of by?
Correct Answer: D. Taking them to sanitary landfills.
Reasoning: Sanitary landfills are one of the most popular forms of watse disposal in the U.S., primarily because they are the least expensive way to dispose of waste. In a sanitary landfill, waste is spread in layers on a piece of property, usually on a marginal or submarginal land. The waste is spread into layers and then compacted tightly, greatly reducing the volume of the waste. It should not be located in areas with high groundwater tables.
My Answer: I chose A. taking the wastes far from land and dumping them into the sea because I thought thats what they do.
# 83 The "environmental friendly" methods of dealing with waste disposal are to reuse, reduce and recycle. Which of the following choices places these methods in order of increasing amounts of energy required for that particular process?
Correct Answer: E. Reduce <reuse < recycle.
Reasoning: Whenever possible, waste reduction is the least expensive option. If waste id produces, every effort should be made to reuse it if possible. Recycling is the third option in the waste management hierarchy. Although recycling does help to converse resources and reduce wastes, there are economic and environmental costs associated with waste collection and recycling.
My Answer: I chose C. recycle<reduce< reuse because in elementary I learned a song that had this order to teach us to recycle.
#84 A group of workers at a nuclear power plant received an acute exposure of radiation. This means
Correct Answer: B. the workers received a high dosage of radiation in a very short time period
Reasoning: An acute exposure refers to a single exposure to a harmful substance that results in severe biological harm or death.
My Answer: I chose C. the workers received a low dosage of radiation over a long period of time. I guessed.
#85 A laboratory was testing the effectiveness of a new insecticide. The laboratory determined that the LD50 dosage level for the rats was 150 milligrams per kilogram of body mass. Based on this information, which of the following statements would be most accurate?
Correct Answer: B. Fifty out of 100 rats receiving 150 milligrams of the new insecticide per kilogram of body mass would die.
Reasoning: The median lethal dose, LD50 of a toxin, radiation, or pathogen is the does required to kill half the members of a tested population after a specified test duration. LD50 figures are frequently used as a general indicator of a substance's acute toxicity.
My Answer: I chose E. because I didn't know what the answer was but now looking at the reasoning I understand.
#86 Which point represents the LD50?
Correct Answer: D. D
Reasoning: Follow the Y axis up to 50%, then move right until you reach the curve, then read straight down.
My Answer: I chose B. B because I thought the LD50 was horizontally
#87 Which point represents the threshold?
Correct Answer: C. C
Reasoning: The first point along the graph where a response above zero is reached is referred to as a threshold dose. For most drugs, the desired effects are found at doses slightly greater than the threshold dose. At higher doses, undesired side effects appear and grow stronger as the dose increases. The more potent a particular substance is, the steeper this curve will be.
My Answer: I chose D. D because I thought threshold is the point where it is about to increase.
#89 DDT, a synthetic agricultural pesticide, was very effective in reducing incidents of malaria but caused shell thinning in certain species of birds. particularly birds of prey such as the bald eagle,brown pelican, peregrine falcon,and osprey. Based only upon shell thinning, DDT would be classified as what type of hazardous waste?
Correct Answer: E. Endocrine disrupter
Reasoning:Endocrine disruptors are substances that interfere with the synthesis, secretion, transport, binding, action, or elimination of natural hormones in the body that are responsible for development, behavior, fertility, and maintenance of homeostasis. Studies have shown that endocrine disruptors can cause adverse biological effects in animals. and low-level exposures also cause similar effects in human beings. In the late 1950s. Rachel Carson, a marine biologist, turned her attention to conservation and the environmental problems caused by synthetic pesticides. Her book, Silent Spring (1962), brought environmental concerns to an unprecedented portion of the American public. Silent Spring. while met with fierce denial from chemical companies, spurred a reversal in national pesticide policy—leading to a_nationwide ban on DDT and other pesticides——and led to the creation of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). DDT has also been linked to avian beak deformities. Had the question included beak deformities, then DDT would also be acting as a mutagen (capable of mutating DNA) and/ or teratogen (a drug or other substance capable of interfering with the development of a fetus, causing birth defects).
My Answer: I chose D. mutagen because it was the only word that sounded familiar.
#91 Which of the following acts addresses and regulates the disposal of hazardous wastes?
Correct Answers: B. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
Reasoning: Congress enacted the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) in 1976 to address the increasing problems the nation faced from its growing volume of municipal and industrial waste. RCRA amended the Solid Waste Disposal Act of 1965. It set national goals for:
- Protecting human health and the natural environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal.
- Energy conservation and natural resources.
-Reducing the amount of waste generated through source reduction and recycling.
- Setting standards for the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes. Hazards to Human Health: Relevant Laws
My Answer: I chose E. pollution prevention act because I thought hazardous wastes are pollutants so I thought it was PPA.
7. Global Change #92-100 (33%)
#95 Which of the following was instrumental in significantly reducing the production of chlorofluorocarbons?
Correct Answer: B. Montreal Protocol
Reasoning: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances believed to be responsible for ozone depletion. The treaty went into effect on January 1, 1989. It is widely believed that if the international agreement is adhered to, the ozone layer may be expected to recover by 2050; however, increasing anthropogenic nitrous oxide emissions may delay that goal. Stratospheric Ozone: Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose E. Toxic Substance Control Act because I did not know what chlorofluorocarbons were and I just guessed.
#96 The majority of the natural greenhouse effect is due to which gas listed below?
Correct Answer: C. Water vapor (H2O)
Reasoning: The key words in this question are “natural” and “greenhouse effect.” Both carbon dioxide and water vapor are produced naturally; water vapor through evaporation and carbon dioxide through animal respiration, volcanic eruptions, and thawing permafrost- Also, “global warming” and “greenhouse effect” are different—do not use the terms inter- changeably.
The greenhouse effect is caused by certain gases (and clouds) absorbing and re—emitting the infrared radiation from Earth’s surface, keeping Earth 20°C to 30°C warmer than it W0U1d be otherwise. Water vapor is the most important contributor to the greenhouse effect. By quantity, there is much more water vapor than carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; it accounts for about 80% of total greenhouse gas mass and 90% of greenhouse gas volume. Water vapor vari es from a trace in extremely cold and dry air to about 4% in extremely warm and humid air. The average amount of water vapor in the atmosphere averaged for all locations is between 2 and 3% while carbon dioxide levels are near 0.04% (more than 60 times as much water vapor in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide). As greenhouse gases, they both trap outgoing long wave radiation between Earth and the atmosphere, keeping temperatures warmer than they would be otherwise. However, carbon dioxide is a more efficient greenhouse gas than water vapor and is being produced by humans at increasing levels. Global warming is the rise in temperatures caused by an increase in the levels of green- house gases due to human activity.
My Answer: I chose D. nitrous oxide because I thought the rest do not causse the green house effect.
#97 Which of the following factors are primary reasons why sea level is rising?
I. Thermal expansion of the oceans
II. More frequent rain and flooding
III. Melting of sea ice
IV. Melting of land-based ice
Correct Answer: D. I and IV
Reasoning: Global sea level rose at an average rate of about 3.5 mm per year from 1993 to 2009. Two main factors contribute to sea level rise. The first is thermal expansion: as ocean water warms, it expands. The second is from the contribution of land—based ice due to increased melting. The major store of water on land is found in glaciers and ice sheets. Melting of sea ice does not contribute to sea level rise (think about ice cubes melting in a glass of water-the level does not rise). Global Warming: Impacts and Consequences of Global Warming.
My Answer: I chose A. I and III because I assumed melting ice and thermal expansion was the primary cause.
#98 Which countries listed below have stated they would not agree to any further reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under and updated Kyoto Protocol (Doha Amendment) set to expire in 2020?
I. Canada
II. China
III. Japan
IV. Russia
V. United States
Correct Answer: D. I, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits countries to reduce greenhouse gases emissions based on the premise that (a) global warming exists and (b) man—made CO2 emissions have caused it. The first Kyoto Protocol consisted of 192 coun~ tries and went into effect in 2005 and expired in 2012. In the 2007, non-binding ‘Washington Declaration‘, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, the United Kingdom, the United States, Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa agreed in principle on the outline of a successor to the Kyoto Protocol. They envisaged a global cap-and—trade system that would apply to both industrialized nations and developing countries, and initially hoped that it would be in place by 2009. In 2010, 76 developed and developing countries collectively responsible for 85% of annual global greenhouse gas emissions agreed to and pledged (Cancun Agreements) to control their emissions of greenhouse gases. However, by 2012, the USA, Japan, Russia, and Canada had indicated they would not agree to a second Kyoto commitment.
My Answer: I chose A. II only because I thought China was the only one who does not want to participate because they are making money with industrialization.
#99 The two greatest threats to the species' survival are generally considered to be
Correct Answer: E. IV. and V.
Reasoning: Most scientists believe that invasive species or the intro of non-native species into regions never before occupied by the species and loss of habit or destruction or splitting up of a once continuous habitat to enable humans to use the land are the primary threats to a species' survival.
My Answer: I chose C. I and V because I thought invasive species was a reason.
#100 Which international agreement has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants by listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled?
Correct Answer: B. CITES
Reasoning: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. Loss of Biodiversity: Relevant Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose A. endangered species act because it sounded like a logical answer.
Correct Answer: B. Montreal Protocol
Reasoning: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances believed to be responsible for ozone depletion. The treaty went into effect on January 1, 1989. It is widely believed that if the international agreement is adhered to, the ozone layer may be expected to recover by 2050; however, increasing anthropogenic nitrous oxide emissions may delay that goal. Stratospheric Ozone: Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose E. Toxic Substance Control Act because I did not know what chlorofluorocarbons were and I just guessed.
#96 The majority of the natural greenhouse effect is due to which gas listed below?
Correct Answer: C. Water vapor (H2O)
Reasoning: The key words in this question are “natural” and “greenhouse effect.” Both carbon dioxide and water vapor are produced naturally; water vapor through evaporation and carbon dioxide through animal respiration, volcanic eruptions, and thawing permafrost- Also, “global warming” and “greenhouse effect” are different—do not use the terms inter- changeably.
The greenhouse effect is caused by certain gases (and clouds) absorbing and re—emitting the infrared radiation from Earth’s surface, keeping Earth 20°C to 30°C warmer than it W0U1d be otherwise. Water vapor is the most important contributor to the greenhouse effect. By quantity, there is much more water vapor than carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; it accounts for about 80% of total greenhouse gas mass and 90% of greenhouse gas volume. Water vapor vari es from a trace in extremely cold and dry air to about 4% in extremely warm and humid air. The average amount of water vapor in the atmosphere averaged for all locations is between 2 and 3% while carbon dioxide levels are near 0.04% (more than 60 times as much water vapor in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide). As greenhouse gases, they both trap outgoing long wave radiation between Earth and the atmosphere, keeping temperatures warmer than they would be otherwise. However, carbon dioxide is a more efficient greenhouse gas than water vapor and is being produced by humans at increasing levels. Global warming is the rise in temperatures caused by an increase in the levels of green- house gases due to human activity.
My Answer: I chose D. nitrous oxide because I thought the rest do not causse the green house effect.
#97 Which of the following factors are primary reasons why sea level is rising?
I. Thermal expansion of the oceans
II. More frequent rain and flooding
III. Melting of sea ice
IV. Melting of land-based ice
Correct Answer: D. I and IV
Reasoning: Global sea level rose at an average rate of about 3.5 mm per year from 1993 to 2009. Two main factors contribute to sea level rise. The first is thermal expansion: as ocean water warms, it expands. The second is from the contribution of land—based ice due to increased melting. The major store of water on land is found in glaciers and ice sheets. Melting of sea ice does not contribute to sea level rise (think about ice cubes melting in a glass of water-the level does not rise). Global Warming: Impacts and Consequences of Global Warming.
My Answer: I chose A. I and III because I assumed melting ice and thermal expansion was the primary cause.
#98 Which countries listed below have stated they would not agree to any further reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under and updated Kyoto Protocol (Doha Amendment) set to expire in 2020?
I. Canada
II. China
III. Japan
IV. Russia
V. United States
Correct Answer: D. I, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits countries to reduce greenhouse gases emissions based on the premise that (a) global warming exists and (b) man—made CO2 emissions have caused it. The first Kyoto Protocol consisted of 192 coun~ tries and went into effect in 2005 and expired in 2012. In the 2007, non-binding ‘Washington Declaration‘, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, the United Kingdom, the United States, Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa agreed in principle on the outline of a successor to the Kyoto Protocol. They envisaged a global cap-and—trade system that would apply to both industrialized nations and developing countries, and initially hoped that it would be in place by 2009. In 2010, 76 developed and developing countries collectively responsible for 85% of annual global greenhouse gas emissions agreed to and pledged (Cancun Agreements) to control their emissions of greenhouse gases. However, by 2012, the USA, Japan, Russia, and Canada had indicated they would not agree to a second Kyoto commitment.
My Answer: I chose A. II only because I thought China was the only one who does not want to participate because they are making money with industrialization.
#99 The two greatest threats to the species' survival are generally considered to be
Correct Answer: E. IV. and V.
Reasoning: Most scientists believe that invasive species or the intro of non-native species into regions never before occupied by the species and loss of habit or destruction or splitting up of a once continuous habitat to enable humans to use the land are the primary threats to a species' survival.
My Answer: I chose C. I and V because I thought invasive species was a reason.
#100 Which international agreement has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants by listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled?
Correct Answer: B. CITES
Reasoning: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. Loss of Biodiversity: Relevant Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose A. endangered species act because it sounded like a logical answer.